Only “women’s only” marathons count for records according to a decision by the IAAF

This is utterly ridiculous. I don’t understand it at all. Why would it matter whether or not a woman set a world or American record during a marathon that also included male competitors? If they intend to apply this retroactively, it would mean Paula Radcliffe’s 2:15:25 at London in 2003 is no longer the world record. It would also mean that Deena Kastor’s 2:19:36 at London in 2006 would no longer be the American marathon record. Does anyone disagree with me that this is CRAZY?